+2 votes
by (140 points)
Do you have any experience being able to tell the difference between becoming disenchanted by a habitual desire/craving and becoming averse to it? If so, please share your thoughts about 'testing' the difference.
by (140 points)
Thank you, Sankha.
by (12.8k points)
You're welcome!
by (140 points)
Thank you, Medhini.

2 Answers

+1 vote
by (12.8k points)
Picture a beautiful sapphire or a diamond. You might feel a liking towards it. Now replace that with a ordinary stone from your garden. You no longer feel that liking. That is similar to the experience of disenchantment. You don't feel any aversion or hatred towards the  stone, but you don't necessarily like it either.

Imagine seeing a beautiful person of the opposite gender. You might feel lust towards that person. Now replace the person with a tree or a wooden post. You do not feel lust towards the wooden post, but you don't have any aversion towards it either. That is similar to disenchantment.

Disenchantment is similar to the neutral feeling you get with neutral sensation. The difference is that it is caused by understanding the reality of nature.
by (140 points)
Thank you, Sankha.
by (12.8k points)
You're welcome!
0 votes
by (2.9k points)
With disenchantment you neither feel a push nor a pull in the mind.

Disenchantment is more a 'not getting excited' and thus there is no pull from the object that would/could move the mind. Whereas aversion is a clear sensation of pushing the object away or the mind turning away from it.

So, yes. The difference can be clearly known and experienced.

Good luck.
by (140 points)
Thank you, Medhini.
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